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Contents
Report of Open Air
Preaching…………………………………..2
The AV Bible
Vindicated………………………………………...3
Ps. 58:1, Isa.7:14,
Acts 13:33, 17:22, 1 Cor.14:2,
Heb.1:5
More about “Church” v.
“Assembly”…………………………..7
The English Standard
Version…………………………………..8
G V Wigram’s Conversion
Story………………………………..9
The Inviolable Word of
God……………………………………10
Something About that
Verse……………………………………12
“Instruction’s Warning
Voice”…………………………………16
Report of Open Air Preaching
January
3rd LEIGHTON BUZZARD, by
the Cross. A new year and the long suffering of our God continues. I regard it
as an immense privilege to stand in a public place to declare the gospel of the
grace of God. Last year tens of thousands were reached in this manner. Today
some children stand nearby and some interference is expected. This is usual
during school holidays. So, a lad aged about twelve came over to me and his
friends followed. But he wanted to ask some questions ¾ How do I know that I am right and all the other religions
are wrong? How do I know that the Bible is true? These questions have to be
answered concisely as one usually has only seconds to give an answer. They must
be answered courteously too. These children were told that the man known as
Jesus of Nazareth came from heaven, proved Himself to be God, died on a cross
for your sins and rose again. Read the gospels. They accepted tracts-without
discarding them- and were gone.
January
8th HITCHIN, on Market Square. It was
a cold, bleak day, but a young couple who were sitting on a bench remained
throughout my preaching. A young girl shouted abuse and then stood in a shop
doorway, mocking. A Sikh man waited for me to finish and then informed me that
his Guru said Christ was crying on the cross and the tears ran down His face.
His Guru never cried. I let him know that his Guru was a wicked liar and
deceiver and that he should turn and believe the gospel. The Sikh then went
across to the off-licence and came out with a can of beer.
January
28th LUTON TOWN CENTRE. A
young man approached in rather a threatening manner. He was a skinhead and his
speech indicated a Glaswegian origin. He tried to intimidate me by standing
immediately in front of me while I preached. I recognised him as the man as the
man who usually stood behind me selling copies of Big Issue.
He
seemed surprised that I was willing to talk to him and within minutes was
giving me his life story. He had a grandmother in Glasgow who was “very
religious” and who would rebuke him for any misdemeanour. He said he had great
respect for her¾and
for me too, for standing up for my faith in a hostile town. He accepted a
booklet “The Way of Salvation”.
We are
glad to hear of others witnessing in the open air. The preaching is usually
bolder and more fervent than anything we hear from our Gospel Hall platforms.
But a number of assemblies do conduct regular open-air meetings so all is not
yet lost.
We read
of the testimony in one town, St Andrews, where many students are reached with
the gospel. At the other end of the town there is also a regular stand. Here,
outside the Baptist church in St Andrews, conjurors are employed and passers-by
are entertained with magic and little white-board sketches. It is thought that
some might be won to Christ by this sleight of hand. This was the place I
attended when first saved. Things were vastly different in the ’fifties.
However,
it is not only some Baptist churches that are now totally apostate. There are
Gospel Halls which would be better
described as Music Halls. Mossknowe Gospel Hall, Cumbernauld, invites folk to
their Liberty Praise Evening for a time of worship and praise with the Valley
Quartet and Friends of Liberty. Tickets £4.
We suspect by “liberty” they really mean “licence” . Llandaff North
Gospel Hall, Cardiff, like to present
the story of Jesus in song and dance. These all are neo-evengelicals who love
the world.
In the
majority of Gospel Halls, where the traditional gospel meeting is being
maintained the gospel is seldom preached. A modern gospel is proclaimed. It is
the “only believe” gospel.
It is
presented as all one has to do to be saved is to believe the gospel. Believe
you are a sinner, believe Christ died for you on the cross, and you are saved.
There
is more needed than only believing. The Lord said so in His very first public
words. He said repent ye, AND believe
the gospel. Mark 1:15. Repentance is not being preached from our platforms.
Failure to do so negates the commission given in Luke 24:47, repentance and remission of sins should be
preached in his name among all nations. This failure to preach repentance
is due to several causes, not least because so often the preacher is
unconverted himself. Our “preacher circuit system” militates against effective
preaching. If I upset some with my warnings of hell, I shall never be invited
back again.
The
preacher who does not tell the unsaved in his congregation that they will have
to give up sin and they will have to give up the world in order to get saved is
dishonest.
*****
The AV Bible Vindicated
Psalm 58:1
Do ye
indeed speak righteousness, O congregation? Do ye judge uprightly, O ye sons of
men?
A commentator tells us,
It is universally agreed that the opening words of the
Psalm are obscure. The word which by the AV is rendered “congregation” (482) is
the word ELEM, and is found elsewhere only once, in the title of Psalm 56,
“Jonath-elem-rechokim”. ….Apart from
those who argue a textual corruption it is agreed by all others that the word
is ELEM and means “silence”. JN Darby will therefore translate, “Is
righteousness indeed silent?” ¾What the Bible
Teaches-Psalms.
The obscurity of the verse is
not universally agreed of course. Men will make such assertions in order to
promote their own rationalistic views and to ape the apostate scholars. Bible
believers see no obscurity and accept the verse as it stands. The AV
translators saw no obscurity for they made no account of it in the margin.
Darby
is compelled to ignore the verb to speak which
is also plainly in the Hebrew reading. Otherwise we get the gobble-de-gook
version “Do ye indeed speak righteousness in silence?”
This
congregation did not speak righteousnessness. They did not judge uprightly.
These conditions repeat themselves in our day.
The
preface to this commentary assures the reader,
The authors of these volumes are not scholars of the
original languages and rely for guidance on the best modern views [my italics] of word meanings and similar matters.
However all the authors share the conviction that the Bible in its entirety is
the word of God. They believe it to be reliable, accurate and intended “for our
learning”.
If it
is the conviction of these men that the Bible in its entirety is the Word of
God, then it is mischief of a high order for them to question it and alter it
as they repeatedly do. But in this day of double talk, when they say “Bible”
they don’t mean what I understand by the word Bible. Their bible is a nebulous
thing, not confined to a single version or translation. They do not believe that
the word of God in its entirety is to
be found between the covers of one single Book. This is the view held and
taught not only among the liberal but also by those once regarded as
conservative fundamentalist brethren. By their own confession they are Modernists.
So how
is “congregation” to be justified as the correct interpretation of ELEM? It is
justified by its presence in the English Bible. The believer does not call into
doubt the words that he finds on the holy page of Scripture. Let our modernist
friends attempt to justify their alteration. They tell us they rely on “modern
views”.
They
turn to H F W Gesenius (1786-1842), a noted German rationalistic theologian.
His lexicon was translated into English by S P Tregelles who spent some time among the Exclusive
Brethren.
Gesenius
wrote of ELEM,
Mla
m. silence.
[“…It may be worth inquiry whether Mla (ELEM)
should not be dropped, having sprung perhaps from a careless repetition of mnma”.
This conjecture is wholly needless….]
In this
Gesenius showed his contempt for the verbal inspiration of Scripture. His words
are those between the speech marks. He is described by B Wilkinson as “Gesenius
a notorious liberal, [who] specialised in changing the theological terminology
of the Bible into that of liberals”. ¾Our Authorized Bible
Vindicated p104.
Isaiah 7:14
Therefore the Lord himself
shall give you a sign; Behold a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and
shall call his name Immanuel.
A comment on
this verse, found on the internet site Truth
and Tidings, for October 2001, reveals the inevitable fruit of textual
criticism. Readers are told that Isa.7:14 doesn’t mean what it plainly says,
that a virgin shall conceive and bear a son. The word “virgin” is clearly
understood by all to mean a pure young woman who has never known a man. But the
Truth and Tidings implication is that ’almah is a vague word with more than
one meaning. In which case the Hebrew Bible lacks a word equating to our
English “virgin”. ’almah occurs at Gen. 24:43, Ex.2:8, Ps.68:25, Prov.30:19,
S.of S.1:3, 6:8, and Isa.7:14 only. If Isaiah meant only that a “young woman
capable of bearing children” conceived, all would reply, “some sign!”.
The Angel of
the Lord told Joseph unequivocally, that the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 was to be fulfilled in the
birth of Christ. Joseph clearly believed this. Isaiah knew that the prophecy
did not relate to himself. He never called his
son Immanuel. He did relate verse 15 to the subject of verse 14, without
allowing the possibility of double fulfillment.
We have no problem with this either. Luke tells us that the child grew and
waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom. (2:40). Luke speaks of the Lord in
His humanity; His growth as a child.
Truth and Tidings tells us the sign in Isaiah was for
Ahaz. It was not ¾Isaiah tells us it was for the whole
House of David. (v.11) . To Ahaz he says “Ask THEE a sign. Ahaz refused to hear it. The sign to Ahaz would be the birth of
Mahershalalhashbaz, born of Isaiah’s wife, and not a virgin. So Isaiah turned
and addressed the House of David; “The Lord Himself shall give YOU a
sign. After this, in v.16, it is back to “Thou” (Singular) with a prophecy in
relation to Ahaz.
It is very
regrettable that the crystal clear prophecy of the virgin birth of Christ in
Isaiah is now denied by those who regard themselves as the fount of all truth.
Acts
13:33
God hath fulfilled the same
unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also
written in the second Psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
Critics tell
us that “again” ought not to be in the verse. Not finding any manuscript
variation, they quote from spurious authorities for its exclusion ¾JND and the
RV. Of course, they might well quote from almost any other modern version, but
that might put brethren on their guard.
We quote
In Acts 13.33, where the AV reads, ''God hath fulfilled
the same unto us. . .in that he hath raised up Jesus again'', note that the RV
and JND, with others, omit the word ''again''. This is not the raising up of
Jesus again from the dead, in resurrection, as in vv. 30 and 34. It is His
being raised up amongst them as a man, as was David in v.22, ''He raised up
unto them David''. This is obviously not resurrection. So, ''Of this man's seed
hath God. . .raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus (v.23) . In connection with
this true manhood, the apostle quotes the second Psalm in v.33. A Man had been
raised up among them who was God's Son. ¾J
Flannigan; What the Bible Teaches; Psalms;
p23
So why does
JND, in Matt.20:19, have “ the third day he shall rise again” and in 1 Thes.
4:13 “Jesus has died and has risen again”. The same word is used here, assuring
us that the word in Acts 13:33 is the proper word for resurrection. It is a
serious thing when brethren tamper with the word of God to promote their
theological opinions. Also note Jn.11:23.
Flannigan’s
note is from his commentary on Psalm 2 where he denies the Son to be eternally
the only-begotten of the Father. This error is the product of Arianism. John
tells us no man hath seen God at any time; the
only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (Jn.1:18). Again, God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we
might live through him. (1
Jn.4:9). This is an eternal relationship.
Acts
17:22
Ye men of Athens, I perceive
that in all things ye are too superstitious.
The Bible
critics are sure that Paul would never have said anything so offensive. They
think he was quite neutral in his speech and merely said, “I see that in every
way you are very religious”. (NIV). Most modern versions read similarly.
When James
wrote of the religious man he used the Greek word threeskos and then defined pure religion and undefiled before God
and the Father using the word threeskia (James
1:26,27). Paul did not use these words. He warned the Athenians that they were disidaimonesteros, i.e. they were giving
undue reverence to evil spirits.
Paul was not
trying to channel their religious fervour in the right direction. He pointed
out to them in as plain speech as possible that evil spirits were behind every
one of their altars. Worship at these altars was therefore a superstition, an
irrational reverence borne out of a fear and dread of the unknown (occult).
All the
religions, sects, cults, and denominations of this world are superstitions and
are idolatrous. As such they are an abomination to God and the Father. Those
who tear at the word of God today are unconverted religionists and we are not
surprised to find them recoiling at the words of the apostle.
1
Cor.14:2
He that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men,
but unto God. (See also vv.
4,13,14,19,27)
Some like to
tell that the word unknown, being in
italics, should not be there. We should read “he who speaks in a tongue…”.
(NKJV etc). “Tongue” is synonymous with “language” i.e., human language.
Therefore those who do not speak in a tongue are babies, madmen, or
Pentecostalists ¾they are not using human language. The NKJV reading is seen to be meaningless.
The
inclusion of unknown in the AV Bible
gives sense to the translation and relates to he who speaks in a language not
known to any present. The word is not needed in vv. 5, 18, where we have the
plural tongues indicating a multiplicity of languages.
Hebrews
1:5
For unto which of the angels
said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again,
I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
The NIV
changes this verse to read “For to which of the angels did God ever say, You
are my Son; today I have become your Father.” This is a rank denial of the
eternal Sonship of Christ.
Flannigan
says in his commentary concerning this verse as found in Psalm 2
He who is the Son eternally has been begotten into manhood
to be recognised in humanity for what He has ever been in deity, the Son of God
This implies
that Christ was not the only begotten Son from eternity. “Only begotten” speaks
of the intimate relationship existing between Father and Son. To deny this is
to deny the Son and brings the denier under the condemnation of John 3:18, …he that believeth not is condemned already, because he
hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
In this
verse “begotten” is missing from modern
versions, openly showing the critics to be condemned unbelievers.
*****
More about “Church” v. “Assembly”
What word
best translates ekklesia? The word I
find written in my God-given Bible, of course! There the matter rests for the
believer. I read “church” and argument ceases. But we like to assure readers that
we do not rest on any bigotted, blind-faith traditionalist untutored biased
assumption concerning the word of God.
We are told
that the word “church” has been abused and it is better therefore to use the
word “assembly”. But the name “Christian” ( a name given by God to those who
belong to Him through faith in Christ) is abused, so ought we not to use it?
Many other Bible words are abused.
A writer
asks,
where does the word church come from? The word is from the
Greek “kyriakon doma” or “kyriakon oikia” which means lordly house or lordly
place. These Greek expressions never occur in the original manuscripts as
representing the assembly. Of course, the word “church” occurs many times in
the Authorized Version, but the choice of word to represent “ekklesia” tells us
more about the preferences of the translators to use language that reflected
their religious affliliation at the time, namely the Church of England. ¾ E Ritchie;
Assembly Testimony; Nov/Dec 2001;
p141.
We have no
sympathy for the C of E. But God used some of these men in a mighty way to
produce the English Bible.
In Learn Ancient Greek, Peter Jones points
out that “church” ultimately [my
italics] derives from kyrios, “lord”,
through “kyriakon doma” “house belonging to the lord”, which was taken up by
the Saxons on the continent, who brought it to England, where it emerged as
“cirice” in the language of our ancestors the Anglo-Saxons, out of which
“church” evolved. (p115).
Ritchie
implies that the translators read into the Greek some words not found in any
Greek manuscript. If our faithful translators had found the words “doma” or
“oikia” in the Greek text replacing “ekklesia”, we can be sure that the English
word house would have appeared in the reading. In any case these words are
never translated “place”!
The
translators, reading “ekklesia” used the modern form of the Anglo-Saxon “cirice”.
And does the
word house only speak of bricks and mortar? The Lord said to the nobleman the son liveth: and himself believed, and his whole house John 5:53.
The word
church means “The Lord’s house” that is, the “Lord’s people”, gathered out and
gathered to. Every believer knows this.
The word
assembly was used by Darby not so much as to speak of those called out from the
world but to distinguish those separating from Christians not holding the same
views of ecclesiastical order. ( I happen to agree that we gather not to a
system or a particular doctrine, neither to a man’s name, nor to a scriptural
practice, but to the Lord Himself. We have no right to form a denomination.
But our
brethren are corrupting the word of God, an error far more serious than that of
supporting one man financially to pastor the local church.
*****
The English Standard Version
The ESV is a
revision of the Revised Standard Version, which was soundly condemned for its
modernism when it appeared in 1952. The ESV must not be confused with the New
Revised Standard Version, which appeared in 1990.
An agreement
was reached in Sept 1998 with the National Council of Churches, which apostate
organisation had produced the RSV, “allowing translators freedom to modify the
original text of the RSV as necessary to rid it of de-Christianing translation
choices.”
Crossway
Books, the publishers of the ESV, claim
The ESV is an “essentially
literal” translation that
seeks as far as possible to capture the precise wording of the original text
and the personal style of each Bible writer. As such, its emphasis is on
“word-for-word” correspondence, at the same time taking into account
differences of grammar, syntax, and idiom between current literary English and
the original languages. ¾ David Bayly; World on the Web. Vol.14,No.22.
ESV is to be
commended for its use of formal equivalence, but its textual sources are
depraved. Its Old Testament translation is based on the Masoretic text of the
Hebrew Bible as found in Biblia Hebraica
Stuttgartensia (2nd ed., 1083). This is not the Masoretic text
underlying the AV Bible but is the product of German rationalism. It changes
the Masoretic of the AV in 20,000 to
30,000 places. The New Testament is based on the Greek text in the 1993
editions of the Greek New Testament (4th corrected ed.), published
by the United Bible Societies (UBS), and Novum
Testamentum Graece (27th ed.), edited by Nestle and Aland. Both of
these scholars are noted for their apostasy.
An example
of translation is “for I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of
God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the
Greek”.(Rom.1:16)
The correct
reading is For I am not ashamed of the gospel
of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that
believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
The words
“of Christ” appear in the majority of manuscripts. Clearly modern versionists are ashamed of the gospel of Christ. It
cuts right across their arrogance and pride.
*****
G V Wigram’s Conversion Story
The following is his own account of his
conversion while a subaltern officer in the army.
Good instructions as to the contents of
the Bible were mine at school, at seventeen, under a John the Baptist ministry;
• but I
never knew the gospel till, at nineteen, I went abroad, full of the animal
pleasures of the military life.
• I and my comrade
spent out long and tiring day on the
field of Waterloo in June, 1824. Arriving late at night at —, I soon went
to my bedroom.
• It struck me, 'I
will say my prayers'. It was the habit of childhood, neglected in youth. I fell
down by my bedside; but I found I had forgotten what to say.
• I looked up as if
trying to remember, when suddenly there came on my soul a something I had never
known before.
• It was as if some
One, Infinite and Almighty, knowing everything, full of the deepest, and tenderest interest in myself,
though utterly and entirely abhorring everything in, and connected with me,
made known to me that He pitied and loved myself.
My eye saw no one; but I knew assuredly that the One whom I knew not, and never had met, had met me for the first time, and made me to know that we were together.
My eye saw no one; but I knew assuredly that the One whom I knew not, and never had met, had met me for the first time, and made me to know that we were together.
• There was a light,
no sense or facility my own human
nature ever knew; there was a
presence of what seemed infinite in
greatness -
• something
altogether of a class that was apart and supreme, and yet at the same time
making itself known to me in a way that I as a man thoroughly feel, and taste,
and enjoy.
• The Light made
all light. Himself withal; but it did not destroy, for it was love itself, and
I was loved individually by Him.
• The exquisite
tenderness and fulness of that love, the way it appropriated me myself for Him,
in whom it all was, while the light from which it was inseparable in Him,
discovered to me the contrast I had been to all that was light and love.
• I wept for a while on my knees, said
nothing, then got into bed.
• The next morning's
thought was, 'Get a Bible'. I got one, and it was thenceforward my handbook. My clergyman companion
noticed this, and also my entire change of life and thought.
We journeyed on together to Geneva, where there was an active persecution of the faithful going on. He went to Italy,
We journeyed on together to Geneva, where there was an active persecution of the faithful going on. He went to Italy,
• and I found my
own company - stayed with those who were suffering for Christ.
I could quite now, after fifty years' trial, adopted to myself in these few lines, as descriptive of that night's experience;
I could quite now, after fifty years' trial, adopted to myself in these few lines, as descriptive of that night's experience;
Christ, the Father’s
rest the eternal,
Jesus once looked down
on me,
Called me by my name
external,
And revealed Himself to
me.
With His whisper, light,
life giving,
Glowed in me, the dark
and dead;
Made me live. Himself
receiving,
Who once died for me and
the bled [sic]
(this story taken from an “Exclusive Brethren”
web-site)
Wigram, one of the 19th
century ”brethren”, produced the Englishman’s Greek and Hebrew Concordances.
His conversion story has nothing Biblical about it. No gospel, no repentance,
no faith exercised. There is no gospel in the verse and no personal response.
*****
The Inviolable Word of God
An article
under this heading, written by J N Darby, was published in Believer’s Magazine
In 1921. We
thoroughly concur with the title. The word of God is inviolable. It is not to
be violated; it is sacred, holy. We shall go further¾it cannot
be violated. It is settled and established and endures for ever.
Strange then
that such an article should come from J N D.
He wrote
I have a profound, unfeigned¾I believe divinely given¾faith in
the Bible. I have, through grace, been by it converted, enlightened, quickened,
saved. I have received the knowledge of God by it, to adore His perfections¾of JESUS,
the Saviour, joy, strength, comfort of my soul…..
I avow, in the fullest, clearest, and distinctest manner
here, my deep, divinely taught conviction of the inspiration of the Scriptures.
While of course allowing, if need be, for the defects in the translation, and
the like, when I read the Bible, I read it as of absolute authority for my
soul, as God’s Word.
What Bible
was Darby referring to? Was it the AV, or his own New Translation? They are
inherently different. When Darby rewrote the Bible he used the works of the
unconverted rationalistic scholars, relying on depraved manuscripts.
Darby’s
“divinely given” unfeigned faith in the Bible led him to altr we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels
for the suffering of death (Hebrews
2:9), to read “we see Jesus, who [was] made some little inferior to angels on
account of the suffering of death”.
Some may
argue that “inferior” is a technically correct translation but in our language
it has a bad sense. Even the NIV retains “lower”. The inference that Jesus
might be in any way inferior is evil.
Darby’s avowal
concerning the inspiration of Scripture is false. He “allows” for defects in
the translation. This raises a number of problems.
The alleged
defects are presumably not inspired. If not then neither are they Scripture,
for all Scripture is given by inspiration of
God. The translation is
then not all Scripture. It cannot be called the Word of God. The translation is
not entirely the Holy Bible. The word “Scripture” refers to the God-given
written Word which is found in its entirety within the covers of the Book we
call the Holy Bible. There is nothing to be found between Genesis1:1 and
Revelation 22:21 in my Bible which is not Scripture. Thus the word “all” is
used with the singular Scripture.
Darby
believed, and all his followers believe as a consequence of his teaching, that
inspiration died with the original manuscripts. So no Bible today can be
described as the verbally inspired word of God.
Darby,
owning that some parts of his New Translation may not be Scripture, translates 2 Tim.3:16, “Every scripture [is]
divinely inspired”. “Every” fragments
the body of Scripture and allows for the inclusion of non-scripture. The
omission of “given” (on the grounds that there is no Greek word for it in the
text) strengthens the view that the words of Scripture became inspired at the
point of writing. The word “divinely”
is not found in the text.
G W
Anderson, in the current Quarterly Record
of the Trinitarian Bible Society gives a helpful comment on inspiration. He
writes
Not understanding the resultant use of the word theopneustos [to mean no more than
“God-breathed”] results in a misunderstanding of how God gave His Word. The
idea many get from rendering the word ‘God-breathed’ is that God breathed
inspiration into the words of Scripture. This is not what inspiration means.
God did not breathe into the words but instead breathed out the words of
Scripture. The source and authority of the words is from God Himself.
Thus while the literal meaning of the two Greek words can
in theory be put together to mean ‘God-breathed’, the word theopneustos actually has the meaning ‘inspired’. This has been
understood and been the practice for many centuries, and in most instances is
continued today. Rendering the word as ‘inspired’ will help Christians
understand the doctrine of the verbal inspiration of the Scripture more clearly
and correctly. ¾The
Question of ‘God-breathed’ and the NIV. P18
*****
Something about that Verse
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the
Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
Have you ever wondered about I John 5:7, that verse
attested to by barely a thimble-full of ancient Greek manuscripts, that verse removed by virtually all New bibles
and yet not removed in the same fashion as the other omitted verses are, that
verse about which even some Majority text advocates change their tune and say
should be in the Bible even though it is NOT Majority text. That verse despised
by Martin Luther (kept out of his Bible Version during his lifetime but
returned to the text afterwards) and said to have been doubted by Erasmus, that
verse famous for being the clearest affirmation of the doctrine of the Trinity
in the entire Bible, that wonderful verse. Have you ever wondered that there
just might possibly be something about that verse?
Many Christians believe that the Majority text and the
Received text or Textus Receptus are one
and the same and generally speaking this can be said to be true because most of
the Textus Receptus follows the majority of Greek manuscripts. However there
are a very small number of cases in the Textus Receptus, and the Authorized
Bible (which was translated from it), that reflect minority Greek readings, the
most famous of which is I John 5:7. The danger in thinking that the underlying
Greek text of the Authorized Bible is the same as, for instance, the so- called
Hodges and Farstad Majority Text, is that, to date, no unflawed or even
remotely reliable Majority Greek Text from a collation of the majority of
ancient Greek manuscripts has ever been produced. Such a 'Majority' text, in
any case, would omit I John 5:7 as it is supported by so few ancient Greek
manuscripts, thus making it a corrupted Majority Greek Text, for, of a
certainty, I John 5:7 should retain its place in the canon of Scripture!
'Majority' is not always best, just like 'oldest' is not always best.
There are about 11 ancient manuscripts that testify to the
verse, although only 6 have it within the main body of the text and one is
presently missing. These manuscripts are Erasmus' Codex Britannicus (although
now missing, its reading is preserved in Erasmus' 3rd edition).
Codex Montfortianus (61 -claimed, but not
proven to be a forgery), Codex Regius (88), Codex Ravianus (w 110), 221,429, Codex Ottobonianus (629), 635, 636, 918,
and 2318. The verse is also found in virtually all Latin manuscripts (8000 +),
and has been found in the Syriac Peshitta, a few Armenian manuscripts, and
Georgian manuscripts. Several church ‘Fathers’ also showed a familiarity with
the passage. Tertullian (who died in 220 AD) seems to allude to the verse in
his Adversus Proxean, but this is
denied by modern scholarship. However, Cyprian of Carthage (died 258 AD)
plainly quotes from the verse, as does Idacius Clarus (c. 350 AD), Athanasius (350
AD), and Jerome in his Epistle to
Eustochium (450 AD). Priscillian (died 385 AD) quotes the verse in his Liber Apologeticus, as do two works by
Vigilus of Thapsus (490 AD); Cassiodorus (480- 570 AD) quotes the verse, and
Fulgentius of Ruspe (510 AD) also quotes the passage in his Die Fide Catholica adv. Pintam. The
ancient Latin treatise called the Speculum
gives witness that the verse was to be found in the Old Italic Bible, and
the verse is also found in the Old Italic fragments Codex Freisingensis (q and
r). The ancient creed known as Expositio
Fidei quotes the verse as does the confession of faith drawn up by Eugenius
of Carthage (484 AD), the Council of Carthage already having used the verse
against the Arian heresy in 415 AD. Even the early Latin Vulgate manuscript
Fuldensis (546) which is one the few Latin manuscripts not to include I John
5:7 and is often cited by opponents because of this, actually quotes it in its
prologue, which begs the conclusion that Fuldensis is simply a corrupted copy of
a Bible Version that DID contain the disputed passage in its main text, but the
corrupters missed the citation in the prologue.
Not one single minority reading opposed to the Textus Receptus or Authorized Bible
reading, used in any Critical Greek Text or New bible whatsoever is as well
attested to as this rare minority Traditional reading. No minority reading in
any Romish Vulgate bible opposed to any Traditional Bible reading has even been
used to defend the faith as much, or with the effectiveness of this rare verse.
Not one single minority reading opposed to the Honest Greek Text of the
Authorized Bible even has such a history as that found attaching itself to this
verse. This is not a minority reading of the like of those used by the wave of
corrupt New bibles today or yesterday. The doctrine of this rare verse is good
and godly! The doctrines clinging to the
minority corruptions of Vaticanus and its black flock are dark and
Satanic and against the beauty of truth.
Only being found presently in a small (but growing) number
of Greek manuscripts, why do most Majority Greek Text advocates say that the
verse should be in the Bible? Several reasons are put forward, but mainly that
it would have been
appallingly bad Greek for the Apostle not to have written it originally. Without verse 7, the passage ignores an important fundamental of Greek grammar -and such terribly inferior grammar is not evidenced in the rest of Apostle John's writings. Without the seventh verse, to quote R.L. Dabney, ¾
appallingly bad Greek for the Apostle not to have written it originally. Without verse 7, the passage ignores an important fundamental of Greek grammar -and such terribly inferior grammar is not evidenced in the rest of Apostle John's writings. Without the seventh verse, to quote R.L. Dabney, ¾
''...the masculine
article, numeral, and particle... ...are made to agree directly with three neuters - an
insuperable and very bald grammatical difficulty. But if the disputed words are
allowed to stand, they agree directly with two masculines and one
neuter noun... ...where, according to a well known rule of syntax, the masculines among the group control the gender over a neuter connected with them...' A rather complicated way of saying it would be unbelievably poor Greek for the Apostle John not to have written verse 7 between verses 6 and 8! To quote J.A. Moorman,¾ 'If the passage is removed from the Greek text ,the two loose ends will not join up grammatically.'
neuter noun... ...where, according to a well known rule of syntax, the masculines among the group control the gender over a neuter connected with them...' A rather complicated way of saying it would be unbelievably poor Greek for the Apostle John not to have written verse 7 between verses 6 and 8! To quote J.A. Moorman,¾ 'If the passage is removed from the Greek text ,the two loose ends will not join up grammatically.'
One
thing that actually makes I John 5:7 stand out for me is the fact that it alone
is omitted in the New bibles in a different way from other omitted verses. The
New International Version is typical of the New bible versions in that the
verse numbers for its missing verses do not even make an appearance in the main
text, but in I John 5:7 the first words of verse 8 are to be found labelled as
verse 7 because they are virtually the same words as those starting verse 7
whether read in Greek or English (only 1 small word in any Greek text which
removes the passage could be rightly called part of verse 7, but if the New
bibles marked the word 'for' only as verse 7, their error would be made
manifest to anybody with eyes to see). Or are they really the first line of
verse 7! It doesn't matter for, in English translations, there is virtually no
difference between omitting the whole, but one word of verse 7 (and 3 words of
8) and omitting the first line of verse 8 and everything but the first line of
verse 7. " 7 For there are three that bear record...8 the
spirit, and the water, and the blood: and
these three agree in one.", or " 7 For... 8
...there are three that bear witness... ...the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in
one."
Very
little difference, you will agree, especially if you take into account the
different words for 'record' or 'witness' in the modern translations is the
very same word in their underlying Greek Texts, (the NIV has 'testify', - now
which verse does that really come from?). Tyndale's Bible makes this very
clear, "(For there are three which
bear record in heaven, the father, the word, and the holy ghost. And these
three are one). For there are three which bear record (in earth:) the spirit,
and water, and blood: and these three are one." The brackets showing
that the words of the minority reading cover the whole of verse 7 and two words
in verse 8. So if Tyndale had omitted the passage instead of putting it in
parenthesis, his Bible would have had no verse 7. God's Word TM has "There
are three witnesses," and the New Living Translation has "So we have
these three witnesses," as verse 7, yet in the Authorised Bible
translation the word 'witness' corresponds to the first line of verse 8 and not
verse 7. This is the only remotely defensible method of pretending to include
verse 7 in a New bible whilst actually omitting it. However, some New bibles
pretend to include verse 7 in a way that is in no wise defensible and which
shows up the reality of what is happening even in the former version type. The
New American Standard bible,
Norlie's Simplified New Testament, Darby's New Translation, Moffatt's
New Translation, the Revised Standard Version and the Revised Version, ALL take
the last part of verse 6 ("And it
is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth.") and
label it as verse 7 in their attempt to disguise the fact that they have
omitted the verse.
Of all
the New bibles I have examined, only the Twentieth Century New Testament made
no pretence of including the verse and omitted even the verse number! Why is it
that these bibles happily omit whole verses in other parts of the text, but
seek to hide the omission of I John 5:7? Guilt? Whatever the reason, it marks I
John5:7 out as something unusual.
One of
the most common arguments made against the verse is the myth of how it wound up
in Erasmus' 3rd edition Textus Receptus when it was omitted in his
first two editions. James R. White, in his book The King James Only Controversy sums up this story, 'The story of how this passage ended up in
the KingJames Version is very instructive. When the first edition of Erasmus'
work came out in 1516 this phrase, dubbed today the "Johannine
comma,"... ...was not in the text
for a very simple reason: it was not found in any Greek manuscript of I John
that Erasmus had examined... ...Both Edward
Lee and Diego Lopez Zuniga attacked
Erasmus for not including this passage
and hence encouraging "Arianism,"... ...In
responding to Lee, Erasmus challenged
him to "produce a Greek manuscript that has what is missing in my edition."... ...Since
Erasmus had promised, in his response
to Lee, to include the passage should a Greek manuscript be found that
contained it, he was constrained to insert the phrase in the third edition when
presented with an Irish manuscript that contained the disputed phrase. Codex
Montfortianus...' This argument is made so as to make it appear that
Erasmus only included I John 5:7 in his 3rd edition to fulfill a promise, but
included it unwillingly.
This
argument by White and numerous others is total mythology! It is true that, at
first, Erasmus was a vocal opponent of I John 5:7, but before he released his 3rd
edition, he had been convinced otherwise, which is why he included it in his
third and the two other editions which followed until his death. Added to that,
the manuscript Erasmus used was Codex Britannicus and had a different reading
from Codex Montfortianus. When Lee,
because Erasmus had omitted I John 5:7, accused him of negligence in not
consulting enough manuscripts when compiling his Greek text, Erasmus replied, 'Is it negligence and impiety, if I did not
consult manuscripts which were simply not within my reach? I have at least
assembled whatever I could assemble. Let Lee produce a Greek Manuscript which
contains what my edition does not contain and let him show that that manuscript
was within my reach. Only then can he reproach me with negligence in sacred
matters.' Not at one single moment did Erasmus promise that he would add
the verse to his text if such a manuscript was found. Not once! Erasmus argued
that Lee could only charge him with negligence if he demonstrated that Erasmus
ignored a manuscript within easy reach. No promise to include I John 5:7 there!
When Erasmus placed I John 5:7 into his text, it was because he was convinced
that it should be there. On November the 1st 1533, Juan Ginez
Sepulveda wrote to Erasmus enclosing 365 readings from Codex Vaticanus which
differed from Erasmus' texts, but the great scholar did not change his text for
such evidence. How is it, then, that on the weight of one single manuscript
(commonly said to be the allegedly forged Montfortianus) Erasmus included I
John 5:7 in all his editions from his 3rd until his death, if 365 readings from
Vaticanus were refused? Erasmus was no fool! We do not know how, but Erasmus,
from being a sceptic, became convinced until his dying day that I John 5:7 was
part of Divine Writ. What we do know is that it was NOT because of some forgery
by a Friar with its ink barely dry!
There
is something about I John 5:7 that is special. Martin Luther's Bible was never
complete until his friends added the verse, from Erasmus' 3rd, after the great
Lutheran's death (Luther was too blind to see the flaw and preferred Erasmus' 2nd
edition). Erasmus' 1st edition was never used to translate a Bible, his 2nd was
used by Luther but as soon as Erasmus replaced the verse, the Lord used that
text as the basis of the Authorised Bible. From Erasmus' 3rd came editions of
the Textus Receptus by other great scholars of the past and finally the
Authorized Bible. I believe that this most famous 'Trinitarian' proof text can
be considered a badge of authority and blessing upon any Bible which contains
it, and that no book that omits it can rightly claim to be God's Holy
Book. • Nigel C.Harris
*****
“Instruction’s Warning Voice”
O happy is the man who hears
Instruction’s warning voice;
And who celestial Wisdom makes
His early, only choice.
For she has treasures greater far
Than east or west unfold;
And her rewards more precious are
Than all their stores of gold.
J S Geikie
Waymarks
is a tract published quarterly. Its purpose is to encourage open-air preaching
and to establish the confidence of the Lord’s people in the Authorized Version
as being the true and only Holy Bible in the English Language.
We are sometimes accused by those of differing
views of showing a lack of love and of being critical of the saints. We love
all those who love Christ but it is not love to Christ to condone error or to
ignore it. It is necessary to identify sources of information so that my
readers may verify statements made.
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acknowledgements must be given.
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